Question
$$(-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6})(-\frac{2}{5}) = 0$$
Answer
The equation has an infinite number of solutions.
Explanation
$$ \begin{aligned} (-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6})(-\frac{2}{5}) &= 0&& \text{simplify left side} \\[1 em]0(-\frac{2}{5}) &= 0&& \\[1 em]\frac{0}{5} &= 0&& \\[1 em]0 &= 0&& \\[1 em] \end{aligned} $$
Since the statement $ \color{blue}{ 0 = 0 } $ is TRUE for any value of $ x $, we conclude that the equation has infinitely many solutions.
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